Even though it’s possessive, “its” is an exception, as in, it doesn’t follow the rule.

They should both be “it’s” because both the possessive and the contraction should have an apostrophe. The possessive doesn’t, and all you can do is memorize it.

Does that help?

The article states “Where was I? Ah; yes. When to use an apostrophe. Letters left out in a contraction. The other use (there are, indeed, only two you’ll encounter outside grammar books) is to signal possession; one thing is owned by (or included in) another.

The cat’s whiskers serve a particular purpose. Sue’s business is thriving. The paper’s surface is white.

The whiskers belong to the cat; they’re part of it. The business belongs to Sue. The surface is part of the paper.”

BUT THEN farther down it states: “The other oddity? Well, it’s a simple little word, but its use requires plain old memorisation, because it’s not based on rules, but convention. Yes, “it’s” and “its”.

The apostrophe only appears in the contraction. If you mean “it is” you write “it’s” but if you mean “belonging to it” you write “its” as in, “its hinges are rusty so it’s hard to open”. ”

So NOW you said above belonging to it is “it’s” and below, you said belonging to it is “its.” So…??????

WHAT DID I MISS HERE??? I could use some clarification please.